Question of Scottish MPs
- 29 Oct 07, 11:11 AM
How would it work? That is the question I have yet to see asked or answered by the Tory Scot who represents an English seat who's arguing that Scottish MPs (and remember he means MPs for Scottish constituencies, not Scots) should be barred from voting on purely English matters.
Now I don't doubt that Sir Malcolm Rifkind has answers but, since I have yet to be able to ask him for them, here for starters are my questions:
• Wouldn't this proposal (if it were in operation now) mean that Gordon Brown had no Commons majority for Labour's key priorities "schoolsnhospitals"?
• If I am right, would the new English 鈥済rand committee鈥 with its Tory majority be able to impose Tory measures on Labour ministers?
• If so, wouldn't Labour ministers refuse to implement what was passed or, in practice, seek to bypass MPs and make more and more changes by administrative fiat (more possible than you might think)?
• Is Sir Malcolm foreseeing a culture change in British politics whereby a Labour government could only pass those measures for which they could get Tory consent or build a coalition a little as Alex Salmond now has to do at Holyrood?
Your answers - and his, of course - gratefully received.
